Hi all... I will like to check if the following proposition is workable? Please do correct me if my hypothetical assumption and approach is wrong? (Minus away family, ethical values)
Let's us look at this example in financial protocol:
1) HDB Flat in Tiong Bahru 5 room High Floor, near to MRT selling - 1 mil SGD. (Valuation @ 1mil - assumption)
2) Transfer property to wife's name ONLY and removing my name or vice versa - Lawyer Fees = 5kSGD, and Stamp Duty (500k*3%-5400).
3) Next, ask my wife to loan the remaining half value of 500k (1mil SGD valuation price) I will recieve 500k SGD with a portion going back to my CPF OA.
4) Violia! I am one with zero loan and owner - Eligible for 80% loan with no 7% ABSD.
5) I will then activated this 500k SGD (Cash+OA), together with loan 80% to buy a second property (ideally at 1.8mil @ Mt Sinai). Sole ownership.
6) 80% of 1.8mil SGD = 1.4mil SGD loan @ 30 years
7) 20% downpayment = 360k SGD
8) Stamp duty = 50k SGD (Inclusive of stamp duty 500SGD)
9) Lawyer fees = 5k SGD
10) Total cost = 360k+49k+5k = 415k SGD
11) Balanced (500k -415k) = 85k SGD
12) 85K can be keep or used to repay my wife loan on Tiong Bahru HDB.
13) Current Tiong Bahru outstanding loan = 450K SGD approximately.
14) Potential loan taken by wife = 450k + 500k = 950kSGD.
15) Wife will pay 30 years loan for 950k for Tiong Bahru HDB 5 room.
As above proposition, is it possible technically and if it will create any backlash and liabilities?
Please kindly throw in your thoughts, opinions and views.
Please refrain from flaming if possible.
Thanks.